Stack #2628927

Question Answer
After frozen RBCs have been thawed and washed they must be used within how many hours?A) 6B) 12C) 72D)48 48
Which type of antibodies are known to cause TRALI?Red Cell antibodiesPlatelet antibodiesHLA antibodiesall of the above HLA antibodies
What is the proper storage temperature for thawed cryoprecipitate4-820-2435-37-20 or below 20-24
If a recipient has anti-c, which donor unit should be selectedr'rRoR1R2ryr'ry*RoRo r'ry
Which of the following blood groups usually reacts LEAST strongly with anti-H? OBA2 A1 A1
Which of the following Rh antigens is found in highest frequency in the Caucasian populationCEce e
Which of the following is generally first found about 12 weeks after the onset of acute Hepatitis B?HBsAgHBeAgAnti-HBeAnti-HBs Anti-HBe
The maximum time which a recipient sample may be used for crossmatching if the pateint was transfused within the last 2 months?24 hoursone week3 daystwo weeks 3 days
What percentage of Rh-negative children would be expected from an R1R1 mother and R1r father?25%100%none50% none
Which of the following may cause a FALSE-NEGATIVE result with antiglobulin techniques?Red cell/AHG test sample is overcentrifugedPatient's blood specimen was collected in gel tubeRed cells were not washed before adding AHGPatient red cells have an red cells were not washed before adding AHG
In order to prevent a loss of viability in platelet concentrations during storage the pH must be maintained above:7.56.05.04.0 6.0
Units of A-, B-, and O-negative red cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing must be preformed by your facility prior to placing into inventory?ABOABO and RhABO, Rh and antibody screenABO,Rh, and Weak D to confirm negative statu ABO and Rh
Proteolytic enzyme techniques may be used to enhance reactions with this group of antigens?Kell systemKidd systemMNS systemDuffy System Kidd system
Can you preform an accurate DAT on a clotted specimen?YesNo No
Of the following MNSs system antibodies, which is almost always cold-reacting, IgM and clincically insignificant?Anti-sAnti-UAnti-NAnti-S Anti-N
If an antibody panel is tested and the auto control is negative but all panel cells react 2+ with patient serum at IAT, which of the following is most likely the cause?AutoantibodyAntibody to high incidence antigenCold alloantibodyAntibody to low antibody to high incidence antigen
Which of these blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?KellDuffyLewisKidd Kidd
How long can fresh frozen plasma be stored?ten yearsone yearsix months24hours one year
A patient is admitted with anemia for two units red cells, he has received a bone marrow transplant a year ago, which red cell product is the best choice for a transfusion?Leuko-reduced red cellswashed red cellsDeglycerolized red cellsIrradiated r Irradiated red cells
All donor blood testing must include which of the following?Anti-CMV testingcomplete Rh phenotypingserological test for syphilisdirect antiglobulin test serological test for syphilis
In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocytes function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of this antigen.RhKellPDuffy Kell
Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A?M,NS,ULea,LebLua,Lub M,N
Once fresh frozen plasma is thawed it should be transfused within :12 hour6 hours24 hours4 hours 24 hours
Cord bloods are washed prior to ABO and Rh grouping to:Remove ant-iExpose A and B antigensRemove Wharton's jellyPrevent reagent neutralization Remove Wharton's jelly
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:Once a dayEvery 4 hoursEvery hourEvery 8 hours every 4 hours
The optimum storage temperature for Red Cells is:-80 C-20 C4 C24 C 4 C
Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of :granuloctyesplateletsred cellslymphoctes lymphocytes
Cryoprecipitated AHG contains how many units of Factor VIII?4080130250 80
An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype.KkkkR1R1KK KK
Given the following typing results, what is this donor's racial ethinicty ? Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-), Js(a+b+)Asian AmericanNative AmericanCaucasionAfrican American African American
The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:galactosyl transferaseN-acetylgalactosaminyl transferaseL-fucosyl transferaseN- acetylglucosaminyl transferase L-fucosyl transferase
What is the component of choice if, bleeding patient has increased BT, APTT,PT, decreased Factor VIII and impaired plt aggregation in response to ristocetin?Factor VIIIFresh frozen plasmaCryoprecipitatePlatelet Pheresis Cryoprecipitate
An oncology patient has the following phenotype: D+ C+ c- E+ e+ and recieved 3 units R2R2 blood. What Rh alloantibody will this patient most likely develop?Anti-DAnti-eAnti-EAnti-c anti-c
What soluble antigen forms are detectable in secretions of a person with the following genotype: AB, Hh ,SeSe?B,A, HA, HHA,B B,A,H
An elderly woman with weight of 90 lbs experiences difficulty breathing, coughing, and cyanosis during a rapid transfusion of red cells. What is the most probable transfuion reaction she may be having.febrileanaphylacticcirculatory overloadhemolyt circulatory overload
The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Weiner Notation as: RoRo R1R1 R1r' RzR2 RzR2
In Rosenfield notation the phenotype of a donor is written as: Rh:1,-2,-3,4,5. What is the correct Fisher-Race notation?cDeCcDeCcDECDEe cDe
AABB standards require that antibody detection tests must include the following?Pooled red cellsAnti-human Globulin phase testingLow-ionic strength testingRoom emperature testing anti-human globulin phase testing
The elution technique is used to:Disassociate IgG antibodies from red cell for further IDDisassociate IgM antibodies from red cell for further IDAdsorb IgG antibodies from serumseparate IgG and IgM antibodies Disassociate IgG antibodies from red cell for further ID
An autoadsorption uses what type of cells to remove antibody from the serum?Antibody screening cellsDonor red cellsPatient red cellsAntibody identification Patient red cells
High-titer,low avidity antibodies typically:react best at cold temperaturesshow strong reaction strengths at IAT phasereacts with antigens of high frequency in the populationreact with antigens of low frequency in the population reacts with antigens of high frequency in the population
An antibody demonstrating dosage would mean that:homozygous cells are strongerheterozygous cells are strongercells react best with PEGcells reacted best at 4 C homozygous cells are stronger
Leukocyte-Poor Red Cells would most likely be indicated for patients with history of:febrile transfusion reactioniron deficiency anemiahemophilia Avon Willebrand disease febrile transfusion reaction
Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:leukocyte antibodieserythrocyte antibodiesIgA deficiencyFacor VIII deficiency IgA deficiency
Hives and Itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?febrileallergiccirculatory overloadbacterial allergic
The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to:perform compatablilty testing accuratelyget an accurate patient historyexclude disqualified donorsaccurately identify the donor unit and recipient accurately identify the donor unit and recipient
Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following effects adverse effects of transfusion:febrile transfusion reactionCMV infectiontransfusion associated graft-vs-host diseasetransfusion related acut lung injury (TRALI) transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease
Symptoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?anaphylactichemolyticfebrileTRALI TRALI
For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to :prevent alloimmunizationdiminish chills and feverprevent hemoglobinemiareverse hypotension and minimize renal damage reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage
Hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion rections.allergiccirculatory overloadhemolyticanaphylactic hemolytic
What is the minimum interval period between plasmapheresis and the donation of a unit of whole blood?6 weeks2 weeks48 hours24 hours 48 hours
The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:diffusionadsorptionneutralizationelution elution
*What is the most probable cold autoantibody detected by Donath-Lansteiner test?Anti-KAnti-IAnti-PAnti-Le Anti-P
Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?Cryoprecipitate AHG, 4 CFresh Frozen Plasma, -20 CRed Cells,frozen, -40 CPlatelet, 37C Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20C
Which one of these constitutes permanent rejection status of donor?a tattoo 5 months agorecent close contact with patient with viral hepatitisrecieved 2 units packed red cells, 4 months agoconfirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years ago confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years ago
According to AABB Standards which of the following donors may be acceptable donor?traveled to malaria endemic area 9 months agospontaneous abortion at 2months gestation, 3 months agoresides with known hepatitis positive personrecieved blood transf resides with known hepatitis positive person
Which will NOT be detected in a crossmatch?ABO typing errorsPlatelet antibodiesDetect all alloantibodiesAll of the above All of the above (ABO typing errors, platelet antibodies, detect all alloantibodies)
What is the approximate volume of anticoagulant in a donor bag of whole blood?400 ml10 ml63 ml150 ml 63 ml
Which are NOT tested for in donor blood before it is released to allogenic pool of blood?HBsAgHIVGraft versus Host diseaseSyphilis Graft versus Host disease
What is the volume of D-positive blood covered by giving one vial of RhoGam?1 ml50 ml15 ml100 ml 15ml
This antibody reacts more strongly with cord cells than adult cells?Anti-IAnti-PAnti-iAnti-M Anti-i
Of the following donor units, which could be selected for an Rh-negative recipient with anti-c?RoR1R2r"r'r'r'r" r'r'
Which blood group antigens can be destroyed by the addition of DTT?KiddRhKellDuffy Kell
What is a lectin?Proteolyitic EnzymeProtein derived from animal sourceEnhancerProtein originating from plant seed extract protein originating from plant seed extract
What is the name of cold antibody associated with infectious mononucleosis?anti-Ianti-LeaAnti-P anti-i anti-i
A red top tube arrives at lab BB for a type and screen. It is labeled: Jon D Dose, 03/5/12 0900 BKT. Is it acceptable to use?Yes, we know the historyNo, missing documentationYes, just ask phlebotomist to resign the tubeNo, we only use gel tubes in No, missing documentation
Once a unit of blood has left the controlled environment how long can the floor hold on to it and still safely return it to the blood bank?24 hours4 hours20 minutes10 minutes 20 minutes (30 mins)
What is the best example of reaction for "aquired B" antigen?Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 1+, A cells: Neg, B cells: 4+Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 4+, A cells: neg, Bcells: negAnti-A: neg, Anti-B: 4+, A Cell:4+, B cells: negativeAnti-A: 1+, Anti-B: 4+, A cel Anti-A: 4+, Anti-B: 1+, A cells: Neg, B cells: 4+
Which of these patients will indicate use of RhIG?Mom 0+ baby O+Mom O neg Baby O neg DAT positiveMom A neg , Baby A pos , Neg DATMom A neg, Baby A neg Neg DAT Mom A neg, baby A pos, Neg DAT
What is the most desirable sample used for crossmatch for exchange transfusion?maternal plasmacord serumneonate plasmano crossmatch is necessary maternal plasma
Degradation of reagents would likely cause a ___in QC shifttrend trend
Which westgard rule is considered a warning:23s12S31S 1 2S
A sample analyzed at 10am had a value for TBil of 15mg/dl. the sample was left on the counter and late that afternoon the specimen was analyzed again. This time the TBil was 9mg/dL. Which of the following is the probable cause of the discrepancy between t bilirubin was lost due to photo-oxidation
A 23-year-old woman enters the hospital with dark urine and yellow eyes. She complained of lethargy and general malaise for 2 previous weeks. Her total serum bilirubin is 9.5mg/dl, conjugated Bili is 6.0mg/dl, ALP is 220mU/mL, LD is 8040IU/L, AST is 2500 Viral hepatitis
The Woman from the last question had a presence of HBsAg and HBeAg, which is most likely:convalescent HBV hepatitis acute HBV hepatitis Carrier State hepatitis recovery phase of HBV acute HBV hepatitis (HBeAg shows she is actively sick)
A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the force and velocity of Myocardial contraction is:Phenytoin Lithium digoxin olanzapine digoxin
Which disease leads to fatty liver and Encephalopathy?Reye's syndrome Crigler-Najjar disease Wilson's disease (excess build up copper)Guillane Barrre disease Reye's syndrome
A 6 year old came to the ER complaining of lethargy, nausea, and vomitiing for 3-4days. The mother said the child was urinating frequently, thirsty all the time and eating a lot. The patient's WBC was 12.5, Hgb 11.2g/dl, acetone-large, glucose-800mg/dL, p diabetic ketoacidosis
This hormone plays a critical role in stimulating gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis in IDDM patientsACTH glycogen glucagon growth hormone glucagon
In kinetic enzyme assays: samples are added and read continuously samples are added and read 1 time after an incubation period samples are added and read at specific time intervals samples are added and one reading is made after addition of sample samples are added and read at specific time intervals
A 35 year old woman goes to the doctor complaining of bone pain. Her ALP is 500 IU/L. After inactivation at 56C for 10 minutes, her ALP is 10IU/L. What is her diagnosis?liver disease Paget's disease intestinal disease carcinoma Paget's disease (ALP is liver and bone)
A 45 year old woman consulted a physician after blood pressure screening at a health fair revealed mild to moderate hypertension. The patient had a central obesity, thin limbs, and a round, ruddy face. She was not taking any medication. Her blood pressure Cushing's disease
TSH-0.05 IU/L FT4-8.0mg/L Which is a likely diagnosis?Hashimoto's disease Graves disease Cushing's disease Addison's disease Grave's disease
A serological pipette with an etched ring that has "TD" inscribed is also known as a ___________pipette.micro blow out transfer blow out
In which of the following types of spectrophotometry do ground state atoms absorb light at a defined wavelength?atomic absorption UV spectrophotometry atomic emission atomic absorption
In which of the following is the measurement of light scattered in a forward direction by a particulate solution. The amound of scatter is directly proportional to the number and size of particles present in the solution?flow cytometry nephlometry s nephlometry
Which is a common technique for the testing of electrolytes?electrophoresis ion selective electrodes spectrophotometry chemluminescence ion selective electrodes
Which of the following types of analysis involves running multiple tests where the sample and reagents are in a separate container for each test?Centrifugal discrete random access discrete
A patient with primary hyperparathyroidism would have an ________calciumincreased decreased increased
If you were the physician for a critically ill patient, would you rather order a TotalCalcium or an Ionized Calcium….why? Ionized calcium it's free flowing in your blood not attached to proteins (i.e. albumin)
The Jendrassik-Graf and Evelyn Malloy are methods for which test?Glucose Creatinine Urobilinogen Bilirubin bilirubin
Which of the following would be increased in hepatocellular carcinoma?AFP transferrin (increased in iron deficiency anemia) alpha2macroglobulin ceruloplasmin (more of a Wilson disease) AFP
This cardiac marker peaks at 4-8 hours
remains elevated up to 5-10 days and can be detected with a qualitative screening testMyoglobin CK-MB Troponin LD Troponin
Which of the following is an antiepilleptic drug?Digoxin Phenytoin Theophylline Tacrolimus Phenytoin
28-year-old woman has been sick with the flu for the past week, vomiting several times every day. She is having a difficult time keeping solids and liquids down, and has become severely dehydrated. After fainting at work, she was taken to a walk-in clinic metabolic alkalosis
Which is a major extracellular cation and plays a major role in Osmolarity?Na K Ca Mg Na
Which NPN is directly proportional to the muscle mass and remains constant from day to day?creatine BUN creatinine uric acid creatinine
Which of the following is responsible for the "creamy" color of a lipemic specimen?triglycerides chylomicrons LDL cholesterol chylomicrons
A 25 year old female sees her physician for symptoms of excessive thirst, dehydration, and excessive urination. Lab results show a decreased ADH/vasopressin and a glucose of 100mg/dl. What is her diagnosisNIDDM IDDM Diabetes insipidis diabetes insipidis
Increased serum albumin is seen in which of the following conditions?Nephrotic syndrome chronic inflammation acute hepatitis dehydration dehydration
Which test can be physiologically elevated in child growth and pregnancy?GGT ALP AST LDH ALP
In order to inhibit glycolysis for long periods of storage, what type of tube should a plasma glucose be drawn in?lavender EDTA green heparin grey sodium fluoride blue sodium citrate grey sodium fluoride
Which NPN is the principle extretory form of nitrogen (by product of protein metabolism)?Ammonia Uric Acid Creatinine Urea Urea
The methology used in the SCREENING of drugs in urine is______________ and the metholology used in the CONFIRMATION of drugs is_______________ immunoassay, GCMS
Which would be increased in a patient diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma?epinephrine cortisol estrogen aldosterone epinepphrine
A patient comes into the emergency room complaining of severe stomach pain. The lab results come back with a gastrin level that is 2000X normal. What is the likely diagnosis?Reye's syndrome Zollinger-Ellison syndrome Addison's Disease Klinefelter' Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Which of the following aids testosterone in spermatogenesis? FSH LH hCG Progesterone FSH
A deficiency of vitamin D can causescurvy rickets beri beri pallagra rickets
What is the calculation to convert the %T to absorbance? A=2-log%T
Using the Friedewald calculation, Calculate the LDL: Chol=250mg/dl, HDL=35mg/dl, Trig=310 153 mg/dL
What is the creatinine clearance: Volume=1850ml, Urine Creat=200mg/dl, plasma Creat=2.2mg/dl, BSA=2.1, time=24 hours 96 ml/min
Standard deviation=6.2mg/dL, mean = 110mg/dl. What is the coefficient of variation? 5.6
You run a glucose on an unconcious ER patient. The procedure manual says to make a 1:3 dilution with DI water and to rerun. Your sample cups hold up to a 1mL. The minimum amount needed to run the test is 200uL. How much serum and how much water would you 675 mg/dL (you multiply 225 by dilution factor)
Clinical assays for tumor markers are MOST important for:screening for cancer (PSA)monitoring the course of a known cancer confirming the absense of a disease identifying patietns at risk for cancer monitoring the course of a known cancer
What condition might a person with an increased amylase and lipase have? pancreatitis
Which of the following lipids is important in cell membrane composition and in nerve transmission?triglycerides cholesterol phopholipids sphingolipids sphingolipids
What is the molarity? 25g of NaCl is dissolved in 250mL of water. gmw-50g 2M
A 20 year old males sees the doctor 3-4 days after overdosing on an over the counter drug. He has severe liver (hepatobilliary) toxicity. Which drug did he likely take? acetaminophen (tylenol)
A patient admits to taking Oxycodone, what test will show up positive on a urine tox?Benzodiazepines opiates Tetrahydrocannabinol barbituates opiates
Which trace element plays a role in many enzymatic reactions in the body?iron zinc selenium copper zinc
Which vitamin deficiency will cause pallagra?Niacin (B3) Thiamine (B1) Folic Acid (B9) Ascorbic Acid (C) Niacin (B3)
A person with an accumulation of bilirubin in the brain that can lead to brain damage is known as having:pku kernicterus cirrhosis reye's syndrome kernicterus
AS part of a hyperlipidemia screening, the following results were obtained on a 25 year old woman 6 hours after eating: Trig: 260mg/dl, Chol: 120mg/dl:Both results are normal and not affected by the recent meal The cholesterol is normal but the trig The cholesterol is normal but the triglycerides are elevated, which may be attributed to the recent meal
Which test should be run in a case of neuromuscular irritability (tetany)?Calcium Magnesium Phosphous A&B Calcium & Magnesium
In an MI, what is the first enzyme to become elevated?CK AST LD ALT CK
Which of the following is true of 2,3-BPG?It enhances the release of oxygen from hemoglobin It provides a source of glucose for the RBC It is unnecessary for RBC survival It is the least of all organophosphates in the RBC it enhances the release of oxygen from hemoglobin
The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is:Krebs cycle hexose monophosphate pathway adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis ATP (adenosine triphosphate generated from anaerobic glycolysis)
What is the last stage of cell capable of undergoing mitosis?Pronormoblast Polychromatic Normoblast Orthochromic Normoblast Basophilic Normoblast Polychromatic normoblast
If 2,3-BPG is increased, which direction does the oxygen dissociation curve shift?RightLeft Right
All of the following are found in heme except:Carbon Ferrous iron Hydrogen Ferric iron Ferric iron
Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte:Appear first at the myelocyte stage Contain lysosomal enzymes Are formed on the mitochondria Are derived from azurophil (primary) granules Appear first at the myelocyte stage
What is the last granulocyte in the maturation sequence able to undergo mitosis?Myeloblast Promyelocyte Myelocyte Metamyelocyte Myelocyte
The light colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a myelocyte is the:Ribosome Chromatin Golgi Mitochondria Golgi
Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is termed: Relative lymphocytosis Absolute lymphocytosis Leukocytosis Absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis Relative lymphocytosis (Remember: relative is referring to the % an estimate, absolute is the actual number)
Which of the following molecules is stored in platelet granules (dense bodies)?Platelet factor 4 Serotonin Fibrinogen Platelet-derived growth factor Serotonin (the other 3 are found in alpha granules)
Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) istemperature dependent complement independent antibody-mediated caused by RBC membrane defect caused by RBC membrane defect
Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis do NOT include:reticulocytosis shortened RBC survival decreased osmotic fragility increased MCHC decreased osmotic fragility
The characteristic erythrocyte found in pernicious anemia is:microcyte hypochromic macrocyte spherocyte macrocyte
A bone marrow failure syndrome that results from damaged or defective stem cells is:Megaloblastic anemia Pernicious anemia Aplastic anemia PNH Aplastic anemia
Which of the following tests is a good indicator of accelerated erythropoiesis?Urobilinogen Glycosylated Hgb Haptoglobin Reticulocyte count Reticulocyte count
Folate and Vitamin B12 work together in production of: Make DNA
What characteristic red cell shape is associated with extravascular hemolysis? Spherocytes
Which of the following is detectable only by examining a peripheral blood smear?poikilocytosis anisocytosis hypochromia microcytosis poikilocytosis (everything else is seen on the analyzer)
Which test result is key in differentiating Iron Deficiency Anemia from Anemia of Chronic Disease? TIBC
Infiltration of abnormal cells destroys and replaces normal cells of the bone marrow describes which of the following diseases?Fanconi anemia Red Cell Aplasia Diamond-Blackfan anemia Myelophthisic Anemia Myelophthisic anemia
What is the most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? surcose hemolysis
What is a heinz body and what disease is associated with it? Denatured hgb found with G6PD
What poikilocyte do we see most often in thalassemia? target cells
What abnormality of the RBCs do we see in lead poisoning? Basophilic stippling
What does forward scatter measure?Complexity Basophilia Granularity Size size
What type of leukemia is CALLa associated with?AML ALL CML CLL ALL (cd10)
The platelet count in Polycythemia Vera isNormal Increased Decreased Increased
What type of leukemia is M4?Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia M3Acute Monocytic Leukemia M5AML with maturation M2 Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia
What is the characteristic cell found in Hodgkin's lymphoma?Smudge cell Clefted lymphocyte Reed-Sternberg Reactive lymphocyte Reed-Sternberg
Which of the following would not be found in CML?Eosinophilia WBC of 100 20% blasts LAP score of 12 20% blasts
List the four Myeloproliferative Disorders CML, PV, ET, MMM/CIMF
What MDS has <1% blasts in bone marrow and blood and <15% ringed sideroblasts?RAEB-t RA RARS CMML RA
What is the key characteristic of MDS?Left shift Pancytosis Dyspoiesis Leukoerythroblastosis Dyspoiiesis
Which of the following is least likely to contribute to death for patients with MDS?Organ failure Neuropathy Thrombocytopenia Neutropenia Neuropathy
A patient had the following results: WBC 8.3 RBC 2.5 Platelet 75 Left shift Philadelphia chromosome – negative LAP 136 Differential showed nRBCs, schistocytes, teardrops, giant plateletsChronic granulocytic leukemia Idiopathic thrombocythemia Po Leukoerythroblastosis in myelofibrosis
What markers would be found on an immature B cell ALL?CD 3 and 5 CD13, 14, and 34 CD 10 and TdT CD19 and 20 CD 10 and TdT
PT – normal APTT – prolonged Serum – corrected Aged – corrected Adsorbed – corrected XI and XII
PT – prolonged APTT – prolonged Serum – no correction Aged – no correction Adsorbed – corrected V
PT – prolonged APTT – prolonged Serum – no correction Aged – corrected Adsorbed – no correction II
PT – normal APTT – prolonged serum – corrected aged – corrected adsorbed – no correction IX
PT – prolonged APTT – prolonged Serum – no correction Aged – no correction Adsorbed – no correction Inhibitor circulating
What would be the PT and APTT results if someone were deficient in Factor XIII? PT normal APTT normal
A patient had a prolonged PT but a normal APTT. What is the most likely factor deficiency? Factor VII
The D-Dimer test is a specific test for: Plasmin degradation of fibrin
Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma? II
The integrity of the intrinsic coagulation system is evaluated by the: APTT
If a patient has a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT but both are corrected by aged plasma and serum but not corrected with adsorbed plasma, the most likely deficiency is factor: X
The urea solubility test is specific for detecting deficiencies of factor: XIII
An abnormal thrombin time is associated with: Fibrinogen deficiency
A sheep blood agar plate inoculated with 0.001 mL of urine grows 80 colonies of Enterococcus faecalis. How many colony forming units per mL of urine should be reported?808008,00080,000 80,000
Which of the following clean catch urine culture colony counts indicated the patient likely has a urinary tract infection?10 CFU/mL1,000 CFU/mL100,000 CFU/mLno growth 100,000 CFU/mL
An aspirate of a deep wound was plated on two BAP plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth on the anaerobic plate only. This indicates that the organism is a(n):nonfermentorobligate anaerobeaerobefacultati obligate anaerobe
A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces:alpha-hemolysinbeta-lactamaseenterotoxincoagulase beta-lactamase
Three sets of blood cultures were obtained from an adult patient with fever and suspected endocarditis. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staph epidermidis at 5 days of incubation. This indicated that:there was low-grade bacteremiathe orga the organism is most likely a contaminant
In order to isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be:inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees Cstored in tryptic soy broth before plating to ensure growth of the orga inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 degrees C
An expectorated sputum is sent to the lab for culture from a patient with respiratory distress. The Gram stain of the specimen shows many SEC (>25/lpf) and rare PMNs. The microscopic appearance of the organisms present include: Moderate GPC in chains and oropharyngeal flora
Which of the following specimen requests is acceptable?feces submitted for anaerobic cultureFoley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culturerectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococciurine for culture of acid-fast bacilli urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
CSF from a febrile 25 year old man with possible meningitis is rushed to the lab for a STAT Gram stain and culture. While performing the Gram stain, the technologist accidentally spills most of the specimen. The smear shows many neutrophils and no microor chocolate
Which of the following is the most appropriate organism and media combination?Legionella species – Regan LoweClostridium difficile – PEACampylobacter species – charcoal yeast extractYersinia enterocolitica – CIN Yersinia enterocolitica – CIN
A medium that aids in the presumptive ID of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:enrichedselectivedifferentialspecialized differential
Vibrio parahaemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on:EMBHESSTCBS TCBS
Media used to support the growth of Legionella pneumophilia should contain which of the following additives?X & V factorsHemin and Vitamin KCharcoal and yeast extract (BCYE)Dextrose and Laked blood Charcoal and yeast extract (BCYE)
A urine Gram stain shows gram pos cocci in clusters. The organism tested catalase positive. To speciate this organism from culture, the tech should perform a coagulase test and a/an:polymyxin B susceptibilitynovobiocin susceptibilityoxidasebeta- novobiocin susceptibility
Which two diseases are usually preceded by infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci?rheumatic fever, undulant feverglomerulonephritis, rheumatic feverrheumatic fever, tularemiaglomerulonephritis, undulant fever glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
A gamma-hemolytic Strep that blackens BE agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely:Group B StrepEnterococcusGroup D Strep Strep pneumoniae Group D Strep (does NOT grow in 6.5%)
Of the following bacteria, the most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within 2-3 months after surgery is:Strep pneumoniaeStrep pyogenesStaph aureusStaph epidermidis Staph epidermidis
A beta-hemolytic Strep that is bacitracin resistant and CAMP positive is:Group A or BGroup AGroup Bbeta-hemolytic, Group D Group B (Strep aglactiae)
MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain:indolecitratesorbitollactose sorbitol
An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube and gave the following reactions: K/A, H2S, gas This organism most likely is:Klebsiella pneumoniaeShigella dysenteriaeSalmonella typhimuriumEscherichia coli Salmonella typhimurium
A TSI tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reactions: K/A, no H2S, no gas This organism is most likelyYersinia enterocoliticaSalmonella typhiSalmonella enteritidisShigella dysenteriae Yersinia enterocolitica
A quality control of the spot indole test requires the use of ATCC cultures of:Pseudomonas aeruginosa/Proteus mirabilisSalmonella typhi/Shigella sonneiEscherichia coli/Proteus vulgarisEscherichia coli/Enterobacter cloacae Escherichia coli/Enterobacter cloacae
An organism that exhibits the satellite phenomenon around colonies of Staph is:Haemophilus influenzaeNeisseria meningitidisNeisseria gonorrhoeaeKlebsiella pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae
An organism isolated from the surface of a skin burn is found to produce a diffusible green pigment on a BAP. Further studies of the organism would most likely show the organism to be:Staph aureusSerratia marcescensFlavobacterium meningosepticum Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a peptic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of H. pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media?urea brothtetrathionateselenitetryptophan urea broth
Assuming the agent isolated from a patient's spinal fluid produces a positive oxidase test, the most likely diagnosis is:tuberculous meningitismeningococcal meningitisviral meningitispneumococcal meningitis meningococcal meningitis
Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningitidis?acid from maltosegrowth on MTMlactose degradationnitrite reduction to nitrogen gas lactose degradation
A strict anaerobe that produces terminal spores is:C. tetaniC. diphtheriaeB. anthracisP. acnes C. tetani
A stool sample is sent to the lab for culture to rule out C. difficile. What media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of the organisms on this media?BBE: colonies turn blackBrucella agar: red pigmented coloniesCCFA: yellow, gro CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies
A smear of skin tissue reveals fluroescent septate hyphae. The smear was prepared using:Acridine orangeCalcofluor whiteAuramine rhodaminePeriodic acid-Schiff Calcofluor white
The formation of germ tubes presumptively identifies:C. tropicalisC. parapsilosisC. glabrataC. albicans C. albicans
The genus of a virus associated with anogenital warts, cervical dysplasia and neoplasia is:herpes simplex viruspapillomaviruscytomegaloviruscoxsackievirus papillomavirus
Mycoplasmas differ from bacteria in that they:do not cause disease in humanscannot grow in artificial inanimate medialack cell wallsare not serologically antigenic lack cell walls
In absorption spectrophotometry: A) Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance B) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentration C) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length D) Absorbance is Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
Which formula correctly described the relationship between absorbance and %T? A) A=2-log%T B) A=2+log%T C) A= -log%T – 2 D) A=1+log%T A=2-log%T
3.Which element is reduced at the cathode of a Clark polarographic electrode?A) SilverB) OxygenC) ChlorideD) Potassium Oxygen
4.Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH?A) 7.35-7.45B) 7.42-7.52C) 7.28-7.68D) 6.85-7.56 7.35-7.45
5.What is the normal ration of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? A) 1:10 B) 10:1 C) 20:1 D) 30:1 20:1
6.A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26
dco2=2.0mmol/L
HCO3-=29mmol/L. These results would be classified as: A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis
7.Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?A) HyperventilationB) Aldosterone releaseC) Release of epinephrineD) Bicarbonate excretion Hyperventilation
8.Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap?A) DiarrheaB) HypoaldosteronismC) HyperkalemiaD) Renal failure Renal failure
9.Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia?A) RicketsB) Multiple myelomaC) Renal failureD) Hypervitaminosis D Rickets
10.Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia?A) Addison's diseaseB) Hemolytic anemiaC) Digoxin intoxicationD) Alkalosis Alkalosis
11.Which of the following condition is associated with hypernatremia?A) Diabetes insipidusB) HypoaldosteronismC) BurnsD) Diarrhea Diabetes insipidus
12.Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium?A) 1.5mmol/LB) 2.0mmol/LC) 2.5mmol/LD) 3.5mmol/L 2.5 mmol/L
13.Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality?A) SodiumB) ChlorideC) BicarbonateD) Calcium: Sodium
14.Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?A) Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosisB) Is the most common form of diabetes mellitusC) Usually occurs after age 40D) Requires insulin replacement to preve Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis
15.Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose?A) Somogyi-NelsonB) HexokinaseC) Glucose oxidaseD) Glucose dehydrogenase Hexokinase
16.Creatinine is formed from the:A) Oxidation of creatineB) Oxidation of proteinC) Deamination of dibasic amino acidsD) Metabolism of purines oxidation of creatine
17.Urea is produced from:A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acidsB) Oxidation of purinesC) Oxidation of pyrimidinesD) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
18.Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluateA) Renal failureB) Acid-base statusC) Hepatic comaD) Gastrointestinal malabsorption Hepatic coma
19.Select the lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglyceridesA) VDRLB) LDLC) HDLD) Chylomicrons VDRL
20.Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease?A) Apoprotein A-IB) Apoprotein BC) Apoprotein C-IID) Apoprotein E-IV Apoprotein A-I
21.Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase?A) Pernicious anemiaB) Myocardial infarctionC) Acute hepatitisD) Muscular dystrophy Pernicious anemia
22.A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10µg/L at admission. Three hours later the myoglobin is 14µ/L and the Troponin I is 0.04µg/L (reference range 0-0.04µg/L). These results are consistent with which condition?A) Skeletal muscle injuryB) Acu No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle
23.Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver diseaseA) GLDB) ALTC) ASTD) GGT GGT
24.Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with:A) HypocalcemiaB) HypocalcuriaC) HypophosphatemiaD) Metabolic alkalosis Hypophosphatemia
25.Which of the following diseases is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia?A) Cushing's diseaseB) Addison's diseaseC) Conn's diseaseD) Pheochromocytoma Conn's disease
26.The serum TSH level is decreased in:A) Primary hyperthyroidismB) Primary hypothyroidismC) Secondary hyperthyroidismD) Euthyroid sick syndrome Primary hypothyroidism
27.Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer?A) CA-15-3B) CA-19-9C) CA-125D) CEA CA-125
28.What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA?A) Diagnosis of liver cancerB) Diagnosis of colorectal cancerC) Screening for cancers of endodermal originD) Monitoring for recurrence of cancer Monitoring for recurrence of cancer
29.Which two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease?A) AST and ALTB) ALP and ALTC) ALP and GGTD) AST and GGT ALP and GGT
30.Beriberi is associated with deficiency of:A) Vitamin AB) Vitamin CC) NiacinD) Thiamine Thiamine
31.Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a marked elevation of:A) GastrinB) CholecystokininC) PepsinD) Glucagon Gastrin
32.Scurvy is associated with deficiency of:A) AB) CC) NiacinD) Thiamine C
33.This trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis:A) ManganeseB) SeleniumC) ZincD) Copper Zinc
34.In quality control, ±2 standard deviations from the mean include what percent of the sample population?A) 50B) 68C) 95D) 99.7 95
35.During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicativ Normal finding
36.Given the following results:ALP Slight increaseALT Marked increaseAST Marked increaseGGT Slight increaseThis is most consistent with:A) Acute hepatitisB) Chronic hepatitisC) Obstructive jaundiceD) Liver hemangioma Acute hepatitis
37.Major actions of angiotensin II include:A) Increased pituitary secretion of reninB) Increased vasoconstrictionC) Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroidD) Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone Increased vasoconstriction
38.What is the metabolite of ethanol?A) BenzoylecgonineB) 6-acetylmorphineC) AcetaldehydeD) Carboxylic acid Acetaldehyde
39.What is the gold standard methodology for Toxicology testing?A) ImmunoassayB) ElectrophoresisC) Liquid ChromatographyD) Mass Spectrometry Mass Spectrometry
40.Calculate the coefficient of variation for a set of data where the mean = 89 mg/dL and 2 standard deviations is A) 7.7%B) 7.9%C) 15.7%D) 15.8% 7.9%
41.In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue?A) BrainB) LiverC) KidneyD) Blood Brain
42.Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid?A) AldosteroneB) CortisolC) CorticosteroneD) Testosterone Aldosterone
43.Select the main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function.A) EstriolB) EstradiolC) EpiestriolD) Hydroxyestrone Estradiol
44.Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the:A) SkeletonB) KidneyC) IntestineD) Placenta Placenta
45.What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized?A) 30%B) 45%C) 60%D) 80% 45%
46.Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:A) Tubular secretion of creatinineB) Glomerular secretion of creatinineC) Renal glomerular and tubular massD) Glomerular filtration rate Glomerular filtration rate
47.Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo?A) FSHB) LHC) hCGD) Progesterone Progesterone
48.Which of the formulas is correct for creatinine clearance?A) U/P x V x 1.73/AB) P/V x U x A/1.73C) P/V x U x 1.73/AD) U/V x P x 1.73/A U/P x V x 1.73/A
49.Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?A) AldosteroneB) Anti-Diuretic HormoneC) Renin D) Angiotensin II Aldosterone
50.The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion causes: A) Rise in plasma TSH B) No rise in plasma TSH C) Rise in plasma growth hormone D) No rise in plas Rise in plasma TSH
1.What test is used along with the mean cell volume (MCV) to morphologically classify anemias?A) red blood countB) hemoglobinC) hematocritD) red cell distribution width (RDW) red cell distribution width (RDW)
2.Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when:A) erythropoietin increasesB) transferrin increasesC) iron stores are decreasedD) chronic disease is present iron stores are decreased
3.Mature T cells with cerebriform, clefted nuclei found in the skin and peripheral blood describe:A) hairy cellsB) prolymphocytesC) lymphoblastsD) Sezary cells Sezary cells
4.What condition is most associated with autosplenectomy?A) abdominal traumaB) thrombocytopeniaC) sickle cell anemiaD) iron deficiency sickle cell anemia
5.Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus?A) PronormoblastB) basophilic normoblastC) polychromatophilic normoblastD) orthochromic normoblast orthochromic normoblast
6.Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates:A) decreased erythropoiesisB) extravascular hemolysisC) intravascular hemolysisD) increased phagocytosis of macrophages intravascular hemolysis
7.The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is:A) Krebs cycleB) hexose monophosphate pathwayC) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysisD) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis
8.What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) perform?A) maintains iron in the hemoglobin molecule in the ferrous stateB) prevents oxidative injury to the red cellC) facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissueD) aids in the ex facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue
9.Which of the following is true of megakaryocytes as they mature?A) nucleus becomes polyploidyB) cytoplasmic basophilia becomes more pronouncedC) size decreasesD) nucleoli become more prominent nucleus becomes polyploidy
10.Lymphocytes become transformed when they are:A) being stimulated by an antigenB) undergoing mitosisC) dyingD) moving to secondary lymphoid tissues being stimulated by an antigen
11.What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias?A) One of the globin chains has an amino acid substitutionB) A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levelsC) Heme is produced at a lower concentrationD) Iron i A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels
12.Why are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age?A) Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin.B) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their small body size.C) Infant Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin
13.A patient has 30% hemoglobin F. Which of the following can be eliminated?A) four missing genes for alpha chain productionB) heterozygous hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobinC) thalassemia intermediaD) the patient is a normal 1-month-old four missing genes for alpha chain production
14.Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis of:A) DNAB) RNAC) ErythropoietinD) Heme DNA
15.Pernicious anemia (PA) can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:A) presence of hypersegmented neutrophilsB) mean cell volume (MCV)C) bone marrow findingsD) presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF)
16.Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) important for normal red cell survival?A) Hemoglobin oxygen affinity is increased in its absence.B) It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione.C) It is required for insertion of iron into th It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione
17.What is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)?A) Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells.B) Chemicals or heat destroy red blood cells.C) The spleen sequesters red cells in an a Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells
18.Renal failure is a prominent feature of:A) hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)B) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)C) Plasmodium malariae infectionD) march hemoglobinuria hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
19.Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. Which of the following can most likely be eliminated?A) hemoglobin C diseaseB) hereditary SpherocytosisC) hemoglobin E diseaseD) liver disease hereditary spherocytosis
20.Toxic granulation, Dohle bodies, and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found together inA) May-Hegglin anomalyB) bacterial infectionC) Chediak-Higashi syndromeD) Alder-Reilly anomaly bacterial infection
21.What do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs) share?A) Philadelphia chromosomeB) increased red cell massC) increased blood cells
overlapping clinical and laboratory featuresD) serious thromboembolic complications increased blood cells
overlapping clinical and laboratory features
22.A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. Which of the following features points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera (PV)?A) increased white countB) increased red cell massC) bone marrow erythroid hyperplasi decreased arterial O2 saturation
23.A child has monotonous blasts in the peripheral blood that have scant blue cytoplasm. They are CALLa (CD10) positive. Which form of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is most likely?A) immature B cellB) immature T cellC) mature B cellD) mature T c immature B cell
24.An adult patient has a white blood count of 80 x 109/L. The differential has 92% Sudan Black B-positive blasts and 8% lymphocytes. Which of the following is most likely?A) acute myeloid leukemia, minimally differentiatedB) acute myeloid leukemia acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
25.A middle-aged man has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 80 x 109/L with 90% lymphocytes and many smudge cells. Which of the following is most likely?A) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)B) hairy cell leukemiaC) T cell lymphomaD) Sezary syndro chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
26. What are the major hematopoietic sites in the fetus and in the adult? Fetus Adult a. lymph nodes spleen b. liver bone marrow c. liver spleen d. bone marrow liverA) aB) bC) cD) d Fetus-liver/ Adult-bone marrow
27.Malignant proliferation of plasma cells with osteolytic bone lesions and the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum describe:A) Waldenstrom MacroglobulinemiaB) marginal zone B cell lymphomaC) follicle center lymphomaD) multiple my multiple myeloma
28.Which of the following would be an unexpected finding in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?A) increased eosinophils and basophils in the peripheral bloodB) 20% blasts in the peripheral bloodC) hypercellular bone marrow with granulopoiesisD) whit 20% blasts in the peripheral blood
29.Which of the following anomalies is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by irregularly sized inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, abnormal giant platelets, and often thrombocytopenia?A) Pelger-HuetB) Chediak-HigashiC) Alder-Rei May-Hegglin
30.Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?A) Membrane defect of lysosomesB) Dohle-like bodies and giant plateletsC) Two-lobed neutrophilsD) Mucopolysaccharidosis Membrane defect of lysosomes
31.A bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 µm in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of:A) Gaucher's diseaseB) Myeloma with Russell bodiesC) Niemann-Pick disease
32.The most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin S is:A) Osmotic fragilityB) Dithionite solubilityC) Kleihauer-BetkeD) Heat instability test Dithionite solubility
33.Hemoglobin H disease results from:A) Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genesB) Absence of 2 of 4 alpha genesC) Absence of 1 of 4 alpha genesD) Absence of all 4 alpha genes Absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes
34.The presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is often accompanied by an increased:A) Reticulocyte countB) Sedimentation rateC) HematocritD) Erythrocyte count Sedimentation rate
35.The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increased in:A) ErythroleukemiaB) Leukemoid reactionC) Chronic granulocytic leukemiaD) Acute granulocytic leukemia Leukemoid reaction
36.The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis is:A) Osmotic fragilityB) Sucrose hemolysisC) Heat instability testD) Kleihauer-Betke Osmotic fragility
37.The most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is:A) Heat instability testB) Sucrose hemolysisC) Osmotic fragilityD) Dithionite solubility Sucrose hemolysis
38.Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include:A) Marrow hypoplasiaB) Ineffective erythropoiesisC) Vitamin B12 deficiencyD) Increased erythropoietin production Ineffective erythropoiesis
39.If polychromasia is increased in the peripheral smear, the ____________ should be elevated.A) White cell countB) Red cell countC) Reticulocyte countD) Basophil count Reticulocyte count
40.Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is:A) Temperature dependentB) Complement independentC) Antibody mediatedD) Caused by a red cell membrane defect Caused by a red cell membrane defect
41.Which of the following represents characteristic features of iron metabolism in patients with anemia of a chronic disorder?A) Serum iron is normal, transferrin saturation is normal, TIBC is normalB) Serum iron is increased, transferrin saturation Serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased
42.In which of the following disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen?A) Chronic myelocytic leukemiaB) Multiple myelomaC) UremiaD) Myeloid metaplasia Myeloid metaplasia
43.Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis do NOT include:A) ReticulocytosisB) Shortened erythrocyte survivalC) Decreased osmotic fragilityD) Increased MCHC Decreased osmotic fragility
44.What is the MCH if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 106/µL, and the hemoglobin is 5 g/dL?A) 21 pgB) 23 pgC) 25 pgD) 84 pg 21 pg
45.In an uncomplicated case of severe iron deficiency anemia, which of the following sets represents the typical pattern of results?Serum Serum % Marrow % Marrow SerumIron TIBC Saturation Sideroblasts Iron Stores Ferritina. Decreased increased d Decreased increased decreased decreased decreased decreased
46.The presence of schistocytes in the peripheral blood indicates which of the following processes?A) iron deficiency anemiaB) intravascular hemolysisC) megaloblastic anemiaD) extravascular hemolysis intravascular hemolysis
47.Why does Plasmodium falciparum infection result in the most serious hemolysis of the various forms of malaria?A) Only reticulocytes are invadedB) Reticulocytes and red blood cells <10 days old are invadedC) Only mature red blood cells are invad Red blood cells of all ages are invaded
48.In which malaria species do you see a characteristic band in the trophozoite stage?A) Plasmodium vivaxB) Plasmodium ovaleC) Plasmodium falciparumD) Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium malariae
49.What is the last erythrocyte precursor capable of cell division?A) Orthochromic NormoblastB) ReticulocyteC) Basophilic NormoblastD) Polychromatic Normoblast Polychromatic Normoblast
50.Given the following data:WBC 8.5 x 103/µL Differential Segs 56% Bands 2% Lymphs 30% Monos 6% Eos 6%What is the absolute lymphocyte count?A) 170B) 510C) 2550D) 4760 2550
1.Which of the following is part of primary hemostasis?A) FibrinolysisB) blood vesselsC) Coagulation factorsD) Inhibitors blood vessels
2.Which of the following aids in preventing excess clotting?A) ThrombinB) factor VIIC) calciumD) protein C protein C
3.What substance digests the fibrin clot after healing?A) PlasminB) activated protein CC) tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)D) alpha-2-antiplasmin Plasmin
4.Which of the following is decreased in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?A) FibrinogenB) PTC) PTTD) FDP Fibrinogen
5.Patients who have a deficiency of protein C or protein S have which type of disorder?A) BleedingB) ThromboticC) BruisingD) Hypercalcemia Thrombotic
6.What platelet membrane receptor binds fibrinogen and supports platelet aggregation?A) GP Ib/IX/VB) GP IIb/IIIaC) GP Ia/IIaD) P2Y1 GP IIb/IIIa
7.Which of the following is associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?A) Normal bleeding timeB) Normal ADP aggregationC) Abnormal ristocetin aggregationD) Absence of clot retraction Absence of clot retraction
8.Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome?A) Giant plateletsB) Normal bleeding timeC) Abnormal aggregation with ADPD) Increased platelet count Giant platelets
9.Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?A) Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetinB) Defective ADP release, normal response to ADPC) Decreased amount of ADP in plateletsD) Marked Markedly decreased aggregation to epinephrine, ADP, and collagen
10.Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Bernard Soulier Syndrome?A) Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetinB) Defective ADP release, normal response to ADPC) Decreased amount of ADP in plateletsD) Markedl Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin
11.Coagulation factors affected by Coumadin (warfarin) drugs are:A) VIII, IX, and XB) I, II, V, and VIIC) II, VII, IX, and XD) II, V, and VII II, VII, IX and X
12.A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of:A) PlateletsB) ProthrombinC) Labile factorD) Factor XIII Platelets
13.What would be the expected screening test results for a patient with a fibrin stabilizing factor deficiency?A) PT prolongedB) APTT prolongedC) PT and APTT prolongedD) PT and APTT normal PT and APTT normal
14.The thrombin time will be prolonged in the presence of all the following exceptA) Elevated fibrinogen degradation productsB) HeparinC) Factor I deficiencyD) Factor II deficiency Factor II deficiency
15.The prothrombin time test requires that the patient's plasma be combined with:A) Platelet lipidsB) ThromboplastinC) Calcium and activatorD) Calcium and thromboplastin Calcium and thromboplastin
16.All the following test results are characteristic of DIC exceptA) Decreased fibrinogen concentrationB) Negative test for degradation productsC) Decreased platelet countD) Prolonged PT Negative test for degradation products
17.Which factors are consumed in clotting and therefore absent in serum?A) I, V, VIII, XIIIB) I, II, V, VIII, XIIIC) II, VII, IX, XD) VIII, IX, XI, XII I, II, V, VIII, XIII
18.What is the diagnosis of a child who has onset of bleeding signs and symptoms, while having a normal CBC, a normal physical examination, and no family history of hemorrhagic abnormalities or thrombocytopenia?A) TTPB) ITPC) HUSD) May-Hegglin A ITP
19.Which of the following is characteristic of platelet disorders?A) Deep muscle hemorrhagesB) Retroperitoneal hemorrhagesC) Mucous membrane hemorrhagesD) Severely prolonged clotting times Mucous membrane hemorrhages
20.Identify the platelet receptor and plasma protein required for normal platelet adhesion.A) Platelet receptor GP IV Plasma protein factor VIII B) Platelet receptor PF-4 Plasma protein factor VC) Platelet receptor GP IIb/IIIa Plasma protein fibri Platelet receptor GP Ib/IX/V Plasma protein von Willebrand factor
21.The following data were obtained on a patient:PT 20 secTT 13 sec (Ref range 9-13 sec)APTT 55 secAPTT plus aged serum CorrectedAPTT plus adsorbed plasma Not correctedWhich of the following coagulation factors is deficient?A) Factor VB) Factor VIII Factor X
22.The following lab results were obtained for a patient with an inherited autosomal dominant trait: Bleeding time Prolonged Platelet adhesiveness Abnormal PT Normal APTT Normal These findings are most consistent with:A) Hemophilia AB) Factor X defi Von Willebrand's disease
23.A patient develops unexpected bleeding and the following test results were obtained:Prolonged PT and APTT, Decreased fibrinogen, Increased fibrin split products, Decreased platelets What is the most probable cause of these results?A) Familial afibr DIC
24.The following results are obtained on a 3-year-old boy with sudden severe hemorrhagic problems:Bleeding time NormalPT NormalAPTT ProlongedAPTT 1:1 Mixing Study CorrectedPlatelet aggregation Normal with ristocetin, ADP, collagen, and epinephrineThese Hemophilia A
25.Results on a patient presenting with sudden severe hemorrhagic problems are as follows:Bleeding time NormalPT NormalAPTT ProlongedAPTT 1:1 Mixing Study No correctionThese clinical manifestations and lab results are consistent withA) Coumadin therap Presence of a circulating inhibitor
1.What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?A) Heterophile antibody-basedB) Monoclonal-basedC) Alloantibody-basedD) Polyclonal-based Polyclonal-based
2.The frequency of the D-negative phenotype in the population is:A) 85%B) 50%C) 35%D) 15% 15%
3.The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel because it:A) determines whether an autoantibody is present.B) determines whether there is a delayed transfusion rea indicates the class of the antibody
4.An antibody screen on a patient with a prior history of transfusion was negative. The crossmatch, performed at immediate spin and antihuman globulin, was incompatible with 1 unit selected. The next step in the investigation would be to:A) perform a perform a direct antiglobulin test on the incompatible unit
5.How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored?A) 14 daysB) 7 daysC) 5 daysD) 10 days 7 days
6.To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is __________ and the infant is __________.A) D-positive, D-positiveB) D-negative, D-negativeC) D-positive, D-negativeD) D-negative, D-positive D-negative, D-positive
7.Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test?A) Incubation will cause hemolysis.B) The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.C) IgM antibodies are detected in the direct antiglobulin test.D) The direct antiglob The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo.
8.Antibodies detected in the immediate spin crossmatch are usually of which of the following immunoglobulin classes?A) IgDB) IgAC) IgGD) IgM IgM
9.A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype:A) Le(a+b-)B) Le(a-b-)C) Le(a-b+)D) Le(a+b+) Le(a-b+)
10.A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause?A) Anaphylactic shockB) Congestive heart failureC) Hypovolemic shockD) Graft-versus-host disease Hypovolemic shock
11.Proteolytic enzymes should not be used to screen for antibodies because:A) some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed.B) red cells must be treated with enzymes first, which makes this technique impractic some antigens are destroyed by enzymes, which would cause the antibodies to be missed
12.A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome?A) The facility is in compliance if the equipment functions properly.B) The facility is in compliance if the blood products stored in it are not transfused.C) T The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and could be cited by the Food and Drug Administration
13.In which type of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is the first-born affected?A) MB) DC) ABOD) E ABO
14.Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells?A) RhB) KiddC) ABOD) Kell ABO
15.Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect:A) red cell alloantibodies.B) irregular antigens on the recipient's red cells.C) human leukocyte antigen antibodies.D) incompatibilities with t red cell alloantibodies
16.Antibodies to which of the following blood group system show dosage (i.e., are stronger with homozygous expression of the antigen)?A) LutheranB) PC) KellD) Duffy Duffy
17.What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used?A) No effectB) HemolysisC) False positivesD) False negatives False negatives
18.Most "naturally occurring" ABO system antibodies fall into which class?A) IgGB) IgAC) IgMD) IgE IgM
19.A 300-µg dose of Rh immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood?A) 100 mLB) 25 mLC) 30 mLD) 50 mL 30 mL
20.A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first Urticarial
21.To prevent graft-versus-host disease, red blood cells prepared for intrauterine transfusions should be:A) saline washed.B) ABO and D-compatible with the mother.C) frozen and deglycerolized.D) irradiated. irradiated
22.Which ABO phenotype selection contains the most H antigen and the least H antigen, respectively, on the red cell's surface?A) A2, A1BB) A1B, OC) O, A1BD) B, A O, A1B
23.Nucleic acid tests are used to screen for:A) hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV.B) human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II, HIV-1/HIV-2, and hepatitis C virus.C) Chagas disease, malaria, and syphilis.D) h hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV
24.Infants do not require crossmatching if they are less than:A) 5 months oldB) 4 months oldC) 6 months oldD) Crossmatching is always required 4 months old
25.A technologist was being trained in a different area of the blood bank and noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of a test. To be helpful, she carefully recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist'
because she used the other technologist's initials.B) No
she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention.C) Yes
as long as she records the result in pencil.D) Yes
all results must be recorded regardless of who did the test. No
she should have brought the error to the technologist's attention
26.Given the following ABO phenotyping data:REVERSEAnti-A: 2+mf A1 cells: 0Anti-B: 0 B cells: 3+What could be a plausible explanation for this discrepancy?A) Rouleaux formationB) Positive direct antiglobulin testC) T-activation of red Group O blood products given to group A
27.The indirect antihuman globulin test is incubated at what temperature?A) 37° CB) 56° CC) 22° CD) 4° C 37° C
28.A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion?A) AB and AB) AB and BC) B and AD) O and A AB and A
29.Compatibility procedures will address all of the following except to:A) maximize in vivo survival rate of red cells.B) check ABO compatibility.C) prevent life-threatening transfusion reactions.D) prevent antibody formation. prevent antibody formation.
30.Which of the following phenotypes is heterozygous?A) Jk(a+b-)B) Fy(a-b+)C) Le(a+b-)D) Fy(a+b+) Fy(a+b+)
31.The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a:A) problem with the cardB) failure to wash correctlyC) negative reaction negative reaction
32.Patient M.M. was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patient's serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin te antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate
33.A transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except:A) posttransfusion patient temperature.B) collection of a blood sample.C) human leukocyte antigen type.D) reidentification of the patient and transfused component human leukocyte antigen type
34.The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8° C. The correct course of action is to:A) place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable.B) have the units place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable
35.How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation?A) 2 weeksB) 8 weeksC) 48 hoursD) 24 hours 8 weeks
36.Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence?A) Transfusion-related acute lung injuryB) Graft-versus-host diseaseC) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibilityD) Urticarial Urticarial
37.Cold autoantibodies are typically of which specificity?A) LebB) MC) ID) N I
38.The weak D test detects:A) missing D mosaicB) Du antigenC) weak D antigenD) weak D antibody weak D antigen
39.Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells).A) Rh-antigen typingB) B-antigen detectionC) Antiglobulin testD) D-antigen typing Antiglobulin test
40.In an antibody identification panel, only one red cell was negative at the antihuman globulin phase. On ruling out and matching the pattern, an anti-k was identified. What further testing is necessary to confirm the antibody?A) Perform an adsorptio Two more k-negative cells should be tested
41.A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent:A) SyphilisB) CytomegalovirusC) human T-cell Lymphotropic virus-ID) malaria malaria
42.How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions?A) Unable to determine without further testingB) Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donorC) D-positiveD Unable to determine without further testing
43.Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if:A) the reagents used were improperly stored.B) the technologist performing the test was never trained.C) preventive maintenance has not bee all are correct
44.Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage?A) Red blood cells, frozenB) PlateletsC) Cryoprecipitated AHFD) Fresh frozen plasma Platelets
45.Leukocyte-poor red blood cells are indicated for patients with:A) febrile transfusion reactions.B) iron deficiency anemia.C) hemophilia A.D) cancer undergoing chemotherapy treatments. febrile transfusion reactions
46.Rh system antibodies characteristically give:A) reactions that are enhanced with enzymes.B) weak reactions with panel cells.C) mixed-field reactions on panels.D) strong reactions with panel cells when read at immediate spin phase. reactions that are enhanced with enzymes
47.When group O blood is not available for transfusion, what is the next alternative?A) Washed group B red blood cellsB) Group AB red blood cellsC) NoneD) Group A red blood cells None
48.Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?A) rrB) R2R2C) R1R2D) R1R1 rr
49.Which of the following is used in the treatment of hemophilia A?A) Factor VIII concentrateB) Fresh frozen plasmaC) PlateletsD) Factor XIII concentrate Factor VIII concentrate
50.A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?A) Indirect antiglobulinB) Immediate spinC) None of them
unit is compatibleD) 37? C low-ionic strength solution Immediate spin
1.Cell-mediated immune responses such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells damaged or infected are carried out byA) lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) classB) lymphocytes of the B (bone marrow-derived) classC) neutrophilsD) b lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) class
2.Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells?A) B lymphocytesB) T lymphocytesC) Natural killer cellsD) Neutrophils Natural killer cells
3.The presence of this antibody usually indicates recent or active infection.A) IgGB) IgAC) IgMD) IgE IgM
4.The antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines isA) IgGB) IgAC) IgMD) IgE IgA
5.All of the following are true statements about IgM except:A) it is produced during a primary antibody responseB) it has the largest molecular weight of all of the immunoglobulin classesC) it fixes complementD) it is capable of crossing the mat it is capable of crossing the maternal-fetal placental barrier
6.The name of the process that promotes attraction of phagocytic cells toward a foreign particle is:A) DiapedesisB) ChemotaxisC) OpsonizationD) Cytolysis Chemotaxis
7.When an antibody-coated antigen is phagocytized, what component of the antibody molecule must fit into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?A) Variable HB) Variable LC) Fab regionD) Fc region Fc region
8.Which characteristic is not associated with B lymphocytes?A) Demonstrate surface immunoglobulin (sIg)B) Differentiate into plasma cells with antigenic stimulationC) Participate in an anamnestic response as memory cellsD) Can directly lyse a fo Can directly lyse a foreign antigen
9.The force of attraction between an antibody and a single antigenic determinant is:A) AvidityB) AffinityC) ionic bondingD) Van der Waals forces Affinity
10.In indirect hemagglutination testing, the:A) antigens of the red blood cells are bound by antibodiesB) antigen passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodiesC) antibody reacts with antibodiesD) soluble antigens react with antib antigen passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodies
11.The radioallergosorbent test (RAST):A) uses antigen specific IgE antibodyB) uses non-covalently-bound antibody on a cellulose discC) uses non-covalently-bound antibody on a cellulose RIA plateD) has an excess of antibody present in the test s uses antigen specific IgE antibody
12.The TORCH IgM and IgG assay includes detection of all of the following except:A) CytomegalovirusB) Epstein-Barr virusC) RubellaD) infectious mononucleosis infectious mononucleosis
13.The substance detected by the RPR assay is:A) T. pallidumB) CardiolipinC) ReaginD) B. burgdorferi Reagin
14.Which hepatitis B serologic marker is the classic first indication of a hepatitis B infection?A) Anti-HbcB) Anti-HbeC) HbsAgD) HbcAg HbsAg
15.Anaphylaxis is characterized by all of the following statements except:A) it can cause death due to asphyxiationB) massive release of histamine from mast cells and basophilsC) prior sensitization to an allergenD) associated with a significant associated with a significant increase in eosinophils in the circulating blood
16.Histamine can:A) cause obstructed airflow to the bronchiolesB) exert an anticoagulant effectC) cause decreased capillary permeabilityD) enhance opsonization in phagocytosis cause obstructed airflow to the bronchioles
17.A speckled pattern relates to:A) dsDNA, histones, DNA-histone complexesB) Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, othersC) centromere proteins A, B, and CD) nuclear lamins A, B, and C
nuclear pore proteins Sm, RNP, SS-A, SS-B, hnRNP, others
18.Which of the following is cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway?A) Properdin factor BB) C1qC) C4D) C3b C4
19.The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infections is:A) HBsB) HBeC) HBcD) HBV HBe
20.Antibody class and antibody subclass are determined by:A) Constant region of heavy chainB) Constant region of light chainC) Disulphide bondsD) Fab region Constant region of heavy chain
21.A transfusion reaction to erythrocyte antigens will activate which of the following immunopathologic mechanisms?A) Immediate hypersensitivityB) Arthus reactionC) Delayed hypersensitivityD) Immune cytolysis Immune cytolysis
22.Systemic lupus erythematosus patients often have which of the following test results?A) High titers of DNA antibodyB) Decreased serum immunoglobulin levelsC) High titers of anti-smooth muscle antibodiesD) High titers of antimitochondrial anti High titers of DNA antibody
23.Which IgG subclass is most efficient at crossing the placenta?A) IgG1B) IgG2C) IgG3D) IgG4 IgG1
24.Which of the following is the "C3 activation unit" in the classical complement pathway?A) C1qB) C3C) C4b, C2aD) C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 C4b, C2a
25.This product of Group A Strep is responsible for the beta hemolysis on the blood agar plate:A) Streptolysin OB) Streptolysin SC) HyaluronidaseD) Erythrogenic toxin Streptolysin S
1.Nosocomial infections are those thatA) develop and progress slowlyB) develop quicklyC) are contracted in the hospital environmentD) develop quickly but last longer are contracted in the hospital enviroment
2.Latent infections are those thatA) develop and progress slowlyB) develop quickly and end soonerC) exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effectD) develop quickly but last longer exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect
3.Organisms that have nutritional needs that are relatively complex and require extra media components to be used for growth are calledA) FastidiousB) CapnophilesC) NeutrophilsD) Halophiles Fastidious
4.Which category of media would MacConkey agar best fit?A) SelectiveB) DifferentialC) Selective and differentialD) Supportive Selective and differential
5.What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?A) Beta hemolysisB) Gamma hemolysisC) Alpha hemolysisD) Kappa hemolysis Alpha hemolysis
6.Anaerobes grow best inA) ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O2) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxideB) increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O2C) 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitroge 5% to 10% hydrogen (H2), 5% to 10% CO2, 80% to 90% nitrogen (N2), and 0% O2
7.Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form grapelike clusters.A) NeisseriaB) StaphylococcusC) MicrococcusD) Streptococcus Staphylococcus
8.The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and producer of the CAMP factor isA) Enterococcus faecalisB) Streptococcus pneumoniaeC) Streptococcus py Streptococcus agalactiae
9.Enterococci can be described asA) able to grow in 6.5% NaClB) usually alpha hemolyticC) a major cause of pharyngitisD) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsuleE) All of the above are true able to grow in 6.5% NaCl
10.The drug of choice for most streptococcal infections isA) VancomycinB) StreptomycinC) PenicillinD) Septra Penicillin
11.Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified asA) Corynebacterium diphtheriaeB) Bacillus anthracisC) Bacillus cer Bacillus cereus
12.The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence forA) ListeriosisB) DiphtheriaC) PertussisD) Tetanus Listeriosis
13.The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will revealA) large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobaci large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods
14.Not only is this group of gram-negative bacteria considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals, but also it contains agents of important diseases such as gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, urinary tract infections, and Enterobacteriaceae
15.The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red-positive, urease-negative, H2S-positive isA) Klebsiella pneumoniaeB) Proteus vulgarisC) Salmonella enteritidis Salmonella enteritidis
16.The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H2S- positive isA) Proteus aerogenesB) Proteus vulgarisC) Proteus mirabilisD) Escherichia coli Proteus mirabilis
17.Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused byA) Brucella speciesB) Bordetella speciesC) Pasteurella speciesD) Francisella species Bordetella species
18.Of the following media, which provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?A) 5% sheep blood agarB) Brain heart infusion agarC) Chocolate agarD) Nutrient agar Chocolate agar
19.Campylobacter spp. can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal manyA) large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilliB) small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilliC) small gram-negative small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli
20.The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?A) VibrioB) SalmonellaC) ShigellaD) Plesiomonas Vibrio
21.Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria areA) gram-positive diplococciB) gram-negative diplococciC) gram-negative coccobacilliD) gram-negative bacilli gram-negative diplococci
22.Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?A) Sphingomonas paucimobilisB) Eikenella corrodensC) Pasteurella multocidaD) Weeksella virosa Pasteurella multocida
23.The tuberculin skin test, or PPD test, is based onA) delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organismB) injection of M. tuberculosis under the skin and subsequent mild cutaneous infectionC) antigen delayed hypersensitivity cell-mediated immunity to certain antigenic components of the organism
24.Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?A) ChlamydiaB) MycoplasmaC) RickettsiaD) Coxiella Mycoplasma
25.The most common larvae found in stool specimens isA) Ascaris lumbricoidesB) Strongyloides stercoralisC) Paragonimus westermanniD) Naegleria fowleri Strongyloides stercoralis
26.A flagellate trophozoite that can be described as 9 to 12 ?m, with one to two nuclei with no nuclear peripheral chromatin, a karyosome composed of four to eight large granules, and finely granular cytoplasm would most likely beA) Giardia lambliaB Dientamoeba fragilis
27.Varicella-zoster virus, Epstein-Barr virus, and cytomegalovirus are included in this widely disseminated group of viruses.A) CoronavirusesB) Herpes virusesC) CalicivirusesD) Filoviruses Herpes viruses
28.Which of the following bacteria is positive for oxidase?A) Proteus mirabilisB) Klebsiella pneumoniaC) AcinetobacterD) Neisseria Neisseria
29.All of the following are capable of causing tuberculosis except:A) Mycobacterium tuberculosisB) Mycobacterium aviumC) Mycobacterium bovisD) Mycobacterium africanum Mycobacterium avium
30.One specific agar for Mycobacterium spp. is:A) Regan-LoweB) Cystine telluriteC) Lowenstein-JenningsD) BCYE Lowenstein-Jennings
31.Which of the following is known to cause Q fever?A) Bartonella henselaeB) Bartonella quintana C) CoxiellaD) Rickettsia rickettsii Coxiella
32.Chlamydial infections have been implicated in:A) Urethritis and conjunctivitisB) Gastroenteritis and urethritisC) Neonatal pneumonia and gastroenteritisD) Neonatal meningitis and conjunctivitis. Urethritis and conjunctivitis
33.The scolex of Taenia saginata has:A) 4 suckersB) No suckers and 14 hookletsC) 24 hookletsD) 26 to 28 sucking disks 4 suckers
34.In a suspected case of Hansen's disease, a presumptive diagnosis is established by:A) Isolation of organisms on Lowenstein-Jensen mediumB) Detection of weakly acid-fast rods in infected tissueC) Isolation of organisms on Loeffler's mediumD) D Detection of weakly acid-fast rods in infected tissue
35.A patient is suspected of having amebic dysentery. Upon microscopic examination of a fresh fecal specimen for ova and parasite, the following data were obtained:Trophozoite of 25 µmProgressive crawlEvenly distributed peripheral chromatinFinely granul Entamoeba histolytica
36.Three sets of blood cultures were obtained. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis on the 7-day subculture. This indicates that:A) There was a low-grade bacteremiaB) The organism is most likely a contaminantC) Th The organism is most likely a contaminant
37.A gastroenterologist submits a gastric biopsy from a patient with a peptic ulcer. To obtain presumptive evidence of Helicobacter pylori, a portion of the specimen should be added to which media?A) Urea brothB) TryptophaneC) Hippurate hydrolysis Urea broth
38.An HIV-positive patient began to show signs of meningitis. Spinal fluid was collected and cultured for bacteria and fungus. A budding, encapsulated yeast was recovered. Which organism is consistent with this information?A) Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcus neoformans
39.An anaerobic, spore-forming, gram positive bacillus isolated from a deep wound of the leg is most probably:A) Francisella tularensisB) Clostridium perfringensC) Bacillus subtilisD) Bacteroides Clostridium perfringens
40.The formation of germ tubes presumptively identifies:A) Candida tropicalisB) Candida parapsilosisC) Candida glabrataD) Candida albicans Candida albicans
41.Examine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) tray shown below and determine the MIC for gentamicin.64 Clear 32 Clear 16 Clear 8 Clear 4 Clear 2 Clear Control CloudyA) ?64 g/mLB) 32 g/mLC) 16 g/mLD) ?2 g/mL ?2 g/mL
42.Rose Gardener's disease is caused byA) Histoplasma capsulatumB) Sporothrix schenckiiC) Blastomyces dermatitidisD) Coccidioides immitis Sporothrix schenckii
43.Respiratory Syncytial virus (RSV) is best isolated using a:A) Nasopharyngeal aspirateB) Cough plateC) Expectorated sputumD) Throat swab Nasopharyngeal aspirate
44.A gram stain from a swab of a hand wound reveals:Moderate gram positive cocci in chainsModerate large gram negative bacilliSelect the appropriate media that will selectively isolate each organism.A) KV-laked agar, Thayer-MartinB) Sheep blood, Mac PEA, MacConkey
45.Which of the following has rhizoids between the sporangiophores?A) MucorB) AbsidiaC) RhizopusD) Trichophyton Absidia
46.Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produceA) Raised lesions on skinB) Central nervous system diseaseC) Formation of abscesses in visceral organsD) Disease in the lower respiratory tract Raised lesions on skin
47.Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?A) RifampinB) MethicillinC) GentamicinD) Vancomycin Gentamicin
48.Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?A) VancomycinB) ClindamycinC) Naladixic acidD) Gentamicin Vancomycin
49.A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is:A) RotavirusB) AdenovirusC) Coxsackie A virusD) Parvovirus Parvovirus
50.Mycobacteria spp. can be detected by all of the following methods except:A) Ziehl-NeelsonB) Auramine-rhodamineC) Acridine orangeD) Kinyoun Acridine orange
1.Which is the proper vein selection for venipuncture?A) Basilic, cephalic, median cubitalB) Cephalic, median cubital, basilicC) Median cubital, basilica, cephalicD) Median cubital, cephalic, basilic Median cubital, cephalic, basilic
2.The difference between serum and plasma is:A) Plasma contains fibrinogenB) Plasma is clear, serum is cloudyC) Serum is collected with an anticoagulantD) Serum is darker yellow in color than plasma Plasma contains fibrinogen
3.Which of the following tubes are in the proper order of draw for the evacuated tube method?A) Lavender, light blue, redB) Light blue, red, greenC) Red, green, light blueD) SST, light blue, green Light blue, red, green
4.What special handling does a bilirubin specimen require?A) Keep at body temperatureB) Protect from lightC) Transport on iceD) None of the above Protect from light
5.The tourniquet must not be on longer than:A) 30 secondsB) 45 secondsC) 1 minuteD) 2 minutes 1 minute
6.You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 0610. You give the patient the glucose beverage at 0613 and he finishes is at 0618. When is the 1 hour specimen collected?A) 0710B) 0713C) 0718D) 0743 0718
7.Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin?A) CitrateB) EDTAC) HeparinD) Oxalate Heparin
8.Which test is most affected by tissue fluid contamination?A) ElectrolytesB) GlucoseC) H & HD) Protime Protime
9.Which of the following is NOT a safe site for heel puncture?A) Medial plantar surface of the heelB) Lateral plantar surface of the heelC) Posterior curvature of the heelD) None of the above Posterior curvature of the heel
10.Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in blood composition primarily because of:A) HemoconcentrationB) HemoglobinC) HemolysisD) Homeostasis Hemoconcentration
11.You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms. Which of the following is the best thing to do? Draw the specimen…?A) Above an IVB) Below an IVC) From an ankle veinD) From an IV Below an IV
12.Which of the following tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?A) Green topB) Light blue topC) PSTD) SST Light blue top
13.EDTA is a/anA) AnticoagulantB) Clot activatorC) Glucose preservativeD) Plasma separator Anticoagulant
14.A PST tube containsA) Citrate and gelB) Heparin and gelC) EDTA and gelD) Silica and gel Heparin and gel
15.For which of the following tubes is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?A) Green topB) Lavender topC) Light blue topD) Red top Light blue top
16.What is the purpose of a royal blue top tube?A) Minimize trace element contaminationB) Preserve glucoseC) Prevent the specimen from clottingD) Protect the specimen from light Minimize trace element contamination
17.This needle is the standard for routine venipuncture isA) 20 gaugeB) 21 gaugeC) 22 gaugeD) 23 gauge 21 gauge
18.An antiglycolytic agentA) Enhances coagulationB) Inhibits thrombin formationC) Keeps the specimen from clottingD) Prevents the breakdown of glucose Prevents the breakdown of glucose
19.How long before obtaining blood for testing should drugs known to interfere with blood tests be discontinued?A) 1 to 4 hoursB) 4 to 24 hoursC) 24 to 36 hoursD) 48 to 72 hours 4 to 24 hours
20.When a test requires a fasting specimen, but the serum is_____, is it a clue that the patient was not fasting.A) HemoconcentratedB) HemolyzedC) JaundicedD) Lipemic Lipemic
21.If collected by capillary puncture, which test specimen is collected first?A) CBCB) ElectrolytesC) GlucoseD) Phosphorous CBC
22.According to CLSI, a heel puncture lancet should not puncture deeper thanA) 1.5 mmB) 2.0 mmC) 2.5 mmD) 3.0 mm 2.0 mm
23.Which of these tests are most affected if the patient is not fasting?A) CBC and protimeB) Glucose and TriglyceridesC) RA and cardiac enzymesD) Blood culture and thyroid profile Glucose and Triglycerides
24.Blood collection tubes are labeledA) As soon as the test order is receivedB) Before the specimen is collectedC) Immediately after specimen collectionD) Whenever it is most convenient Immediately after specimen collection
25.After cleaning the venipuncture site with alcohol, the phlebotomist shouldA) Allow the alcohol to dry completelyB) Fan the site to help the alcohol dryC) Dry the site with a regular gauze pad or cotton ballD) Insert the needle quickly before Allow the alcohol to dry completely
1.Which of the following would be affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for three hours before analysis?A) Occult bloodB) Specific gravityC) pHD) Protein pH
2.Which of the following urine results is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light?A) pHB) ProteinC) KetonesD) Bilirubin Bilirubin
3.The normal pH for a healthy adult's urine is:A) 4.5B) 5.0C) 6.0D) 8.0 6.0
4.Which of the following is the average volume of urine excreted by an adult in 24 hours?A) 750 mLB) 1000 mLC) 1500 mLD) 2000 mL 1500 mL
5.A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:A) TurbidityB) Dissolved solidsC) Salt contentD) Sugar content Dissolved solids
6.Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:A) Glucose readingB) Blood readingC) Nitrate readingD) pH reading Blood reading
7.The amber color of urine is primarily due to:A) Urochrome pigmentB) MethemoglobinC) BilirubinD) Homogentisic acid Urochrome pigment
8.Urine reagent strips should be stored in a(an):A) Refrigerator (4°C-7°C)B) Incubator (37°C)C) Cool dry airD) Open jar exposed to air Cool dry air
9.A urine specimen comes to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored:A) At room temperatureB) At 4°C-7°CC) FrozenD) With a preservative additive At 4°C-7°C
10.All casts typically contain:A) AlbuminB) GlobulinC) Immunoglobulins G and MD) Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
11.An ammonia-like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who:A) Are diabeticB) Have hepatitisC) Have an infection with Proteus spD) Have a yeast infection Have an infection with Proteus sp
12.When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed?A) CastsB) aRBC'sC) WBC'sD) Bacteria Casts
13.Which of the following are reported as number per LPF?A) RBC'sB) WBC'sC) CrystalsD) Casts Casts
14.The largest cells in the urine sediment are:A) Squamous epithelial cellsB) Urothelial epithelial cellsC) Cuboidal epithelial cellsD) Columnar epithelial cells Squamous epithelial cells
15.Increased transitional cells are indicative of:A) CatheterizationB) MalignancyC) PyelonephritisD) Both Catheterization and Malignancy Both Catheterization and Malignancy
16.A primary characteristic used to identify renal tubular epithelial cells is:A) Elongated structureB) Centrally located nucleusC) Spherical appearanceD) Eccentrically located nucleus Eccentrically located nucleus
17.A person submitted a urine specimen following a strenuous exercise routine can normally have all of the following in the sediment except:A) Hyaline castsB) Granular castsC) RBC castsD) WBC casts WBC casts
18.WBC casts are primarily associated with:A) PyelonephritisB) CystitisC) GlomerulonephritisD) Viral infections Pyelonephritis
19.Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?A) Calcium carbonateB) Calcium oxalateC) Calcium phosphateD) Triple phosphate Calcium oxalate
20.Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate?A) CystineB) TyrosineC) LeucineD) Cholesterol Cystine
21.Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are:A) Calcium oxalateB) Calcium carbonateC) Calcium phosphateD) Amorphous phosphate Calcium carbonate
22.The most valuable initial aid for the identification of crystals in a urine specimen is:A) pHB) SolubilityC) StainingD) Polarized microscopy pH
23.Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?A) RBC castsB) Fine granular castsC) Waxy castsD) Fatty casts Waxy casts
24.The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female:Color= amberAppearance = cloudySpecific Gravity= 1.015pH= 5.0Protein= 1+Glucose= negativeBlood= smallMicroscopic:Bacteria= manyWBC casts= fewWBC/HPF= 30-40The results are most compatib Pyelonephritis
25.A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:A) Chronic pyelonephritisB) Nephrotic syndromeC) Acute glomerulonephritisD) Lower urinary tract obstruction Acute glomerulonephritis
If a titer is performed and agglutination is present in the 1:64 dilution tube, but negative in the 1:32 dilution tube, how do you report the titer?negative3264inconclusive 64
In which of the following assays is a substrate first exposed to a patient's serum, then after washing, AHG labeled with a flurochrome added.. Immunoassay Fluorescent quenching Direct Fluorescence Nephlometry Fluorescent quenching
Which of the following tests can cause sore throat, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, and liver inflammation. Reactive lymphs are usually noted on differential.Cytomegalovirus Epstein Barr Virus Toxoplasmosis Erlichiosis Epstein Barr Virus
After taking a medication, a patient develops respiratory distress, vomiting, and hives. What is this reaction mediated by?* IgG IgM IgA IgE IgE (anaphylactic reaction)
Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following? opsonin hapten antigen secretory piece opsonin
Which of the following tests is an acute phase reactant that could be elevated in post operative patients?AFP CRPalbuminImmunoglobulin CRP
The actual strength of a bond between antigen and antibody is: affinity avidity alkalinity acidity avidity
What is the causitive agent of lymes disease? treponema pallidum borellia burdorferi erlichia babesia borellia burdoferi (erythema migrans is the rash)
What is the genetic target of CARCINOGENS?Please respond and click submit. codons viruses prionsoncogenes Oncogenes
__________are cytokines that regulate chemotaxisPlease respond and click submit. chemokines leukotrienes interferons complement Chemokines
The propensity, or the attraction of a bond between antigen and antibody is termed?Please respond and click submit. affinity avidity urticaria valence affinity
What are long lived T cells that have been stimulated by an Ag?Please respond and click submit. Memory cells Thelper cells Plasma cells Cytotoxic cells Memory cells
Which of the following is responsible for the beta hemolysis on a blood agar plate?Please respond and click submit. erythrogenic toxin streptolysin S streptolysin O hyaluronidase Streptolysin S
These cells are responsible for inhibiting the action of other T cells:Please respond and click submit. T-helper T-supressor T-cytotoxic Natural killer T-supressor
In Bruton disease, measurements of serum immunoglobulins would show:Please respond and click submit. High IgE High IgG Normal IgG but low IgAabsence of all Ig absence of all Ig
Which of the following is sometimes used as a tumor marker?Please respond and click submit. Alpha-feto protein HbsAg Biotin CD1 Alpha-feto protein
When inflammation and infection overwhelm the body, it is called: Sepsis
The portion of the antigen that binds to an antibody or T cell receptor is called:*Please respond and click submit. allergin epitope avidin valence epitope
Which mediator is responsible for "wheal and flare"?Please respond and click submit. Histamine Tumor necrosis factor Interleukin-1 Interferon Histamine
Antibody expression in the development for autoimmune disease is:Please respond and click submit. Antigen excess Antigen deficiency Antibody excess circulating immune complexes circulating immune complexes
The role of the macrophage during an ANTIBODY response is to:Please respond and click submit. Make antibody Lyse virus infected cells Process antigen and present it Activate cytotoxic T cells process antigen and present it
Patients with severely reducedC3 levels tend to have:Please respond and click submit. Increased viral infections Increased bacterial infections low Ig levels hemolytic anemia increased bacterial infections
The binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes is known as:Please respond and click submit. complement fixation agglutination precipitation all of the above complement fixation
Bone marrow transplantation in Immunocompromised patients presents which type of major problem?Please respond and click submit. Leukemia delayed hypersensitivity Graft vs host disease death Graft vs host disease
Humoral mediated immunity is associated with*Please respond and click submit. T lymphs Macrophages B lymphs Neutrophils B lymphs
The fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of:Please respond and click submit. Body cells Antibodies self antigens self
Serology is the study of:Please respond and click submit. Antigens Antibodies Infections chemicals Antibodies
Lattice formation is formed by cross links between:Please respond and click submit. Antigens and Antibodies Antibodies and complement B lymphs and antibodies WBC's and MHC antigens Antigen and antibodies
Which disease would you expect with a speckled ANA pattern throughout the nucleus and a positive test for Anti-Smith?Please respond and click submit. SLE RA Sjogrens Scleroderma SLE
Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?*Please respond and click submit. IgA IgG IgD IgM IgM
What is the term for the negative charge on cells that keep the red cells from agglutinating in the blood stream?Please respond and click submit. chemotaxis zeta potential vanderwalls forces ionic bonds zeta potential
Where would you find undifferentiated lyphocytes?Please respond and click submit. Bone Marrow Thymus Spleen Lymph Nodes Bone marrow
Prozone phenomenon occurs when:Please respond and click submit. Antigen and Antibody are equal Antigen is in excess Antibody is in excess Antigen or Antibody is missing antibody is in excess
A substance is most antigenic when its biochemical composition is:Please respond and click submit. Carbohydrate Lipid Lipoprotein Protein Protein
Cytokines are capable of:Please respond and click submit. Chemotaxis Cell migration Fever All of the above all of the above
Which is the last complement component that ends in red blood cell lysis?Please respond and click submit. 3 4 8 9 9
Circulating complement proteins are in the form of:Please respond and click submit. Cytokines Lysozymes Proenzymes Epitopes Proenzymes
T cells are capable of:*Please respond and click submit. making immunoglobulins antigen presenting phagocytosis all of the above antigen presenting
What is a serum factor that is formed in response to foreign substances?Please respond and click submit. Hapten Antigen Antibody Atopy antibody
The antigen binding portion of the antibody is:*Please respond and click submit. Constant region of the light chain Constant region of the heavy and light chain Variable region of the heavy and light chains Variable region of the light c variable region of the heavy and light chains
Which of the following cells produce Antibodies?Please respond and click submit. Mast Cells T cells B cells/Plasma Cells Eosinophils B cells/Plasma Cells

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